1. In hepatitis C (HCV) a chronic carriage rate is
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 40%
E. >50%
2. Typical liver function values in acute hepatic failure include
A. hypoalbuminaemia
B. hyperglycaemia
C. serum alkaline phosphatase > 6 times normal
D. peripheral blood lymphocytosis
E. prolonged prothrombin time
3. The typical features of type A viral hepatitis (HAV) include
A. picornavirus infection spread by the faecal-oral route
B. an incubation period of 3 months
C. a greater risk of acute liver failure in the young than in the old
D. progression to chronic hepatitis if cholestasis is prolonged
E. left hypochondrial pain and tenderness
4. In hepatitis C (HCV)
A. the infecting agent is an RNA flavivirus
B. the disease does not progress to chronic hepatitis
C. most patients experience the symptoms of acute hepatitis
D. the virus is responsible for 40% of all post-transfusion hepatitis
E. a chronic carriage rate of > 15% is the rule
5. The typical features of hepatic cirrhosis include
A. a small shrunken liver
B. painful splenomegaly
C. haemolytic anemia
D. Kayser-Fleischer rings
E. obstructive jaundice and pruritus
6. The serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) concentration is
A. derived from a microsomal enzyme specific to hepatocytes
B. typically more than six times normal in acute viral hepatitis
C. usually normal in both obstructive and haemolytic jaundice
D. likely to rise and fall in parallel with the serum bilirubin in viral hepatitis
E. likely to increase in response to enzyme-inducing drug therapy
7. The serum alkaline phosphatase concentration is
A. derived from the liver, bone, small bowel and placenta
B. typically increased to more than six times normal in viral hepatitis
C. of particular prognostic value in chronic liver disease
D. increased more in extrahepatic than in intrahepatic cholestasis
E. derived mainly from gastric sinusoidal and canalicular membranes
8. The pathogenicity is
A. the disease caused by a pathogen
B. the ability to cause a disease
C. a pathogen power to cause severe disease
D. the ease with which a pathogen can spread in a population
E. none
9. Important host factors are
A. hygiene, previous immunity, nutrition, underlying diseases
B. pathogenicity, infectiousness, virulence
C. temperature, dust, antibiotics, pesticides
D. none
E. cellular immunity
10. Routes of transmission of infection
A. temperature,dust,humidity
B. inhalation,ingestion,inoculation
C. vectors,direct contact,fomites,inhalation,ingestion,inoculation
E. vertical transmission
11. The leading cause of illness in travelers
A. malaria
B. schistosomiasis
C. typhoid fever
D. diarrhea
E. hepatitis A
12. The Sleep disorders, mood swings and nightmares are adverse reaction associated with the use of
A. mefloquine (Lariam)
B. malarone
C. doxycyline
D. chloroquine + proguanil
E. chloroquine
13. Diagnostic methods for HIV infection are:
A. positive EIA or positive Western-blot
B. 2 x positive EIA or positive Western-blot
C. 2 x positive EIA and clinical symptoms
D. 2 x positive EIA and history of risk behavior
14. To diagnose AIDS in Poland the following are required:
A. AIDS defining condition and CD4 <200 cells/mm3
B. AIDS defining condition and history of risk behavior
C. AIDS defining condition and documented HIV infection
D. any clinical symptoms of immunodeficiency and documented HIV infection
15. Which of the below mentioned opportunistic infections does not define AIDS
A. bronchial candidiasis
B. esophageal candidiasis
C. oral candidiasis
D. central nervous system candidiasis
E. toxoplasmosis
16. Antiretroviral treatment may result in:
A. eradicating HIV and making the patient non-infectious
B. reducing viral load below the limit of detection and making the patient non-infectious
C. increasing CD4 count and making the patient non-infectious
D. reducing viral load below the limit of detection and increasing CD4 count
17. Basic data to assess the stage of HIV infection are:
A. clinical symptoms and CD4 count
B. clinical symptoms and viral load
C. clinical symptoms and the route of transmission
D. CD4 count and viral load
E. clinical symptoms
18. A study of transfusion-related infectious diseases determines that some blood donors appear to have acquired an infection via vertical transmission from mother to child. Laboratory testing strategies are devised to detect the most common of these infections and exclude such persons as blood donors. As a consequence, which of the following infectious agents is most likely to be a significant cause for rejection as a blood donor later in life.
A. Escherichia coli
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Candida albicans
E. Pneumocystis carinii
19. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the hospital after ingesting pills he found in a cabinet at home. The child is rapidly becoming obtunded. Laboratory studies show a serum AST level of 850 UL and ALT level of 1052 UL. The childs respiratory and cardiac status remain stable. Which of the following drugs was most likely ingested:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Penicillin
C. Aspiryn
D. Sulfamethoxazole
E. Codeine
20. Live viruses are usually used for active immunisation against:
A. poliomyelitis, mumps, measles and rubella
B. typhoid feler
C. pertussis
D. hepatitis B
E. hepatitis D
21. Drugs that induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, all are true except :
A. chronic ethanol ingestion
B. glucocorticoids
C. Grisofulvin
D. carbamazepin
E. Cimetidin
22. The following statements are true except :
A. low blood urea is seen in many acute and chronic liver diseases
B. high blood urea in the context of severe liver damage may indicates gastrointestinal hemorrhage or hepatorenal syndrome
C. hyponatremia is very common in severe liver disease and usually multifactorial
D. raised gamma GT enzyme level may occur during treatment with carbamazepin
E. large increase in serum aminotrnsferases activity with a small rise in alkaline phsophatase activity is in favor of biliary obstruction
23. Imaging in liver diseases, all are true except:
A. ultrasound of the liver is a rapid, cheap and easy method and usually the first imaging to be done, yet its main limitation is that small focal lesions less than 2 cm will be missed
B. color Doppler studies are very useful and used to investigate hepatic veins, portal vein and hepatic artery diseases
C. MRI is usually used for pancreaticobiliary diseases rather than parenchymal liver diseases
D. outlining the biliary tree can be done by injecting a contrast medium into the biliary tree through the skin or by an endoscopic approach
E. plain abdominal radiographs are very helpful in liver diseases
24. Regarding liver biopsy, all are true except :
A. the patient should be cooperative
B. the PT prolongation if present, should be less than 4 seconds above the upper normal control value
C. severe COPD is a contraindication
D. marked ascites will make the procedure easier
E. ...
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